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Polity & Governance: Current Affairs Master (2025–2026) ​

📊 High-Yield Data & Statistical Fact Sheet
  • 8th Central Pay Commission:
    • Chairperson: Justice (Retd.) Ranjana Prakash Desai.
    • Operational Scope: Reviews pay/pension structures for 50 lakh central employees and defense personnel, balancing consumer price indices with a target compression ratio (currently ~1:13.9 gap between minimum pay and Cabinet Secretary salary).
  • VB-G RAM G Act, 2025 (Rural Employment Reform):
    • Repeals the historical MGNREGA, 2005.
    • Transits rural job guarantee from a demand-driven right to a supply-driven, budget-capped system.
    • Increases work guarantee from 100 days to 125 days per financial year.
    • Restructures funding to a 60:40 Centre-State sharing ratio (90:10 for NE/Himalayan states) across wages and materials (replacing the 100% central wage funding).
  • SHANTI Act, 2025 (Civil Nuclear Reform):
    • Repeals the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010.
    • Ends the absolute public monopoly by opening civil nuclear power production to private and foreign investment.
    • Caps operator liability at ₹3,000 crore per incident and exempts equipment suppliers from recourse unless damage intent is proven.
  • Online Gaming Act, 2025:
    • Imposes an absolute ban on Real Money Games (RMGs) involving monetary stakes (e.g., Poker, Rummy, Fantasy Cricket).
    • Explicitly exempts competitive E-sports, treating them as skill-based sports.
    • Violations carry up to 3 years of jail and a ₹1 crore fine, with CERT-In blocking apps.
  • Income Tax Act, 2025:
    • Replaces the legacy Income Tax Act, 1961.
    • Empowers digital search protocols, allowing officers to access electronic spaces (emails, WhatsApp) and mandates targets to provide access passwords.
    • Limits reopening of assessments to 5 years; allows taxpayers to update/fix returns for 4 years.

1. APEX SUPREME COURT RULINGS (2025 BENCHMARKS) ​

APEX SUPREME COURT RULINGS (2025 BENCHMARKS) ​

APEX SUPREME COURT RULINGS (2025 BENCHMARKS)
Analyze key facts and concepts related to APEX SUPREME COURT RULINGS (2025 BENCHMARKS). -

To optimize GS2 Mains answers, memorize these exact case titles and rulings:


Detail the concepts and significance of I. Departmental Inquiry Safeguards (*State of Jharkhand v. Rukma Kesh Mishra, 2025*).

I. Departmental Inquiry Safeguards (State of Jharkhand v. Rukma Kesh Mishra, 2025)

- SC Ruling: Clarified that under Article 311, prior approval of the appointing authority is not a mandatory prerequisite to initiate departmental or disciplinary proceedings against a public servant. Such approval is only required at the final stage before passing the order of dismissal, removal, or reduction in rank.
Detail the concepts and significance of II. Land Registration & Property Title (*Samiullah v. State of Bihar, 2025*).

II. Land Registration & Property Title (Samiullah v. State of Bihar, 2025)

- SC Ruling: The court held that the mere registration of a sale deed or land document before a sub-registrar does not constitute absolute proof of title. Registration only records transaction details; legal ownership title must be independently established through civil court processes.
Detail the concepts and significance of III. Reproductive Rights & Surrogacy (*Surrogacy Act Benchmark, 2025*).

III. Reproductive Rights & Surrogacy (Surrogacy Act Benchmark, 2025)

- SC Ruling: Declared that the exclusion of single women (divorced or widowed) from the Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021 violated Article 14 (Equality) if they are medically unable to carry a child. The court permitted a widow to use frozen embryos created with her late husband's sperm, ruling the "Right to Procreate" is an integral part of the Right to Life under Article 21.
Detail the concepts and significance of IV. POSH Act Cross-Entity Applicability (*Dr. Sohail Malik v. Union of India, 2025*).

IV. POSH Act Cross-Entity Applicability (Dr. Sohail Malik v. Union of India, 2025)

- SC Ruling: The court ruled that under the POSH Act, 2013, an aggrieved woman can file a sexual harassment complaint with her own organization's Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) even if the alleged harasser is an employee of a separate organization or an outsider.
Detail the concepts and significance of V. Legislative Plenary Override (*Contempt v. Override Ruling, 2025*).

V. Legislative Plenary Override (Contempt v. Override Ruling, 2025)

- SC Ruling: The Supreme Court held that an act passed by a State Legislature cannot be treated as Contempt of Court unless the act itself is declared unconstitutional. Legislative override via plenary powers is permissible to cure judicial defects.

2. EXECUTIVE, ADMINISTRATIVE & STATE DEVELOPMENTS ​

EXECUTIVE, ADMINISTRATIVE & STATE DEVELOPMENTS ​

EXECUTIVE, ADMINISTRATIVE & STATE DEVELOPMENTS
Analyze key facts and concepts related to EXECUTIVE, ADMINISTRATIVE & STATE DEVELOPMENTS.
- Seva Teerth Complex: The newly built executive enclave housing the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO), the Cabinet Secretariat, the National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS), and "India House" (dignitary talk venue) under the Central Vista project. - Uttarakhand UCC Amendments (2025): The first post-independence state UCC extended its live-in relationship registration period from 6 months to 1 year, increasing penalties for non-registration. Scheduled Tribes (STs) remain entirely excluded from UCC applicability. - Ladakh Domicile & Reservations (2025): Mandates an 85% reservation in government jobs specifically for resident Ladakhis (reaching 95% total quota when combined with ST, EWS, and border residents). Authorised Tehsildars issue domicile certificates based on a 15-year stay criteria. - Zonal Councils: Statutory bodies under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 chaired by the Union Home Minister, with Chief Ministers serving as Vice-Chairpersons on rotation.
```text [Zonal Councils (States Reorg Act, 1956)] / | \ [Union Home Minister] [Rotate State CM] [UT Administrators] (Permanent Chairperson) (Vice-Chairperson) (Full Members) ```

3. DIGITAL GOVERNANCE, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCHEMES ​

DIGITAL GOVERNANCE, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCHEMES ​

DIGITAL GOVERNANCE, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCHEMES
Detail the concepts and significance of I. Digital Voting & De-duplication.

I. Digital Voting & De-duplication

- ECINet Portal: Centralized digital portal launched by the ECI utilizing de-duplication algorithms to detect and remove duplicate voters across state boundaries. - E-SECBHR App (Bihar 2025): Used in Bihar local body elections for Aadhaar-based digital voter authentication and Facial Recognition System (FRS). - SabhaSaar AI: A Bhashini-powered real-time transcription and translation tool digitizing Gram Sabha minutes into multiple regional languages.
Detail the concepts and significance of II. Skill Development & Research Networks.

II. Skill Development & Research Networks

- Prime Minister's Internship Scheme (PMIS): - Targets 1 crore youth over 5 years in top 500 companies. - Eligible candidates (aged 21–24) receive a monthly stipend of ₹5,000 (funded via CSR and government grants) for a 12-month internship. - Excludes IIT/IIM graduates and high-income households (>₹8L).
```text [Student 21-24] ──► [PMIS Portal Reg] ──► [Top 500 Match] ──► [12-Month Internship] ──► [₹5,000 Stipend (CSR)] ```
- ANRF & The PAIR Model: The Anusandhan National Research Foundation (replacing SERB, with the PM as President) launched the PAIR (Promoting Advanced and Inclusive Research) initiative, linking nascent research units (spokes) to Top-25 NIRF universities (hubs).
Detail the concepts and significance of III. Social Justice: The NAMASTE Scheme.

III. Social Justice: The NAMASTE Scheme

- Full Title: National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem. - Objective: Replaces the SRMS manual scavenging rehabilitation scheme, aiming for 100% mechanization of sewer and septic tank cleaning to ensure zero fatalities. - Sanipreneurs: Up-skills traditional sanitation workers as sanitation entrepreneurs, providing capital subsidies and machinery grants.

🎯 UPSC Prelims 2026 Questions & Explanations ​

studies, and scientific research. Hence, this statement is correct.... - Question 76: studies, and scientific research. Hence, this statement is correct.
Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on

Correct Answer: (C)

Key Concepts & Explanation:
(c) All three (d) None
Two Indian aquana uts as.in/c current-affairs/news-milesto today/ne by 05-deep in 16/science-and-technology/sa/launch-by-end-niot
Samudrayaan is a project under this mission: Samudrayaan is one of the major projects under the Deep Ocean Mission and focuses on developing India's manned deep-ocean exploration capabilities through the deployment of Matsya-6000. Hence, this statement is correct.
Mr. X's decision to report the misconduct to the vigilance authority and suspend the compromised contract, despite pressure from vested interests, represents a clear example of the principle of accountability public administration. Accountability implies that a public servant is answerable for his or her actions, decisions, and administrative outcomes, particularly when public welfare and integrity of governance are at stake.
To check the basic understanding of governance topic
FA
2nd ARC report
RR

Year Asked: Prelims 2026
the principles of public administration which he learnt during vari... - Question 77: the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare. Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X's actions? (a) Esprit de corps (b) Equity (c) Accountability (d) Delegation
claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses. As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through the mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health. Consider the following statements with reference to the above: 1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives. 2. The Government
In addition, conducting an independent and transparent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) ensures that decisions are based on objective evidence and that all stakeholders are adequately informed about the social, cultural, and environmental consequences of the project (Statement 4).

Correct Answer: ()

Key Concepts & Explanation:
By acting against malpractice and prioritising citizen welfare over external pressure, Mr. X upheld transparency, ethical responsibility, and institutional integrity — core elements of accountable governance. The other options are less appropriate in the given context: Esprit de corps refers to team spirit, harmony, and unity among members of an organisation. Equity relates to fairness, justice, and impartial treatment of individuals and groups. Delegation refers to the transfer of authority and responsibility from a superior to a subordinate. None of these principles adequately capture the act of taking responsibility for exposing wrongdoing and ensuring ethical administration.
77 Polity and Governance
In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which
tribal representatives, environmental experts, civil society members, and municipal authorities is essential for promoting mutual understanding and reducing tensions (Statement 3). Participatory dialogue strengthens democratic decision-making and enhances the legitimacy of the resolution process.
On the other hand, Statement 2 advocates proceeding with the project by disregarding the concerns of the tribal community on the ground that they constitute a “small group.” Such an approach is inconsistent with the principles of natural justice, participatory governance, and constitutional protections available to tribal communities under legislations such as the Forest Rights Act, 2006 and Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996. It also violates the principle of free, prior, and informed consent and is likely to aggravate rather than resolve the conflict.

Year Asked: Prelims 2026
Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban de... - Question 78: Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development
department of a major
city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project — a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city's reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust. What amongst the following should Ms. X do now?
1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public
2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project's integrity\n3. Propose a 'limited disclosure' to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being\nSelect the answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only\n(b) 3 only\n(c) 2 and 3 only\n(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: ()

Key Concepts & Explanation:
Option 1, which advocates immediate public disclosure of the allegations, is not appropriate at this stage because the allegations against the contractor
remain unverified. Premature
governance
disclosure may unfairly damage the contractor's reputation, violate principles of natural justice, and expose the administration to potential legal liability. Similarly, Option 2 — recommending the unilateral removal of the contractor from the shortlist — is also problematic. Such a step would bypass established institutional procedures and the authority of the project committee, while relying on information that has not yet been conclusively proven. Administrative decisions must be based on due process and credible verification rather than unsubstantiated allegations. Option 3, namely making a limited disclosure to an appropriate oversight or vigilance mechanism, represents the most balanced and ethically sound course of action. It ensures that the matter is brought to the attention of a competent institutional authority for scrutiny, while simultaneously protecting the confidentiality and reputational rights of the concerned contractor until the facts are properly established. This approach upholds: transparency within the institutional accountability framework, procedural fairness and due process,
topic
confidentiality where necessary, and the ethical duty of integrity expected from a public servant.\n\nAt the same time, it allows Ms. X to act responsibly and independently without yielding to Mr. Y's improper instruction to suppress relevant information.\n\nTherefore, only Statement 3 constitutes the most ethically defensible and administratively appropriate course of action.

Year Asked: Prelims 2026
Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with d... - Question 81: Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?
1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination. 2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology. 3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities
Statement 3 is incorrect. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation functions under the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities, which is part of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, and not under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
(PwDs).

Correct Answer: (D)

Key Concepts & Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 was enacted in 2016, not in 2018. Although the statement correctly refers to provisions relating to reservation in education and employment, as well as the obligation of governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination, the incorrect year renders the statement factually wrong. The Act provides for:
1.10 years of the RPWD Act.
CA
https://depwd.gov.in/en/acts/ https://depwd.gov.in/en/nation-al-handicapped-finance-and-development-corporation/
EM
Sandhan Test Series Statement 1 can be solved through the question given below
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an institution for persons with disabilities.
4% reservation in government employment, and 5% reservation in higher educational institutions for persons with Disabilities.
Statement 2 is correct. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan, launched in 2015, aims to achieve universal accessibility for persons with disabilities across three major domains:
Statement 1 is incorrect because the rights of the RPWDA Act.
India to notify SOPs under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act, 2016
1.0 years of the RPWDA Act.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan, launched in 2015, aims to achieve universal accessibility for persons with disabilities across three major domains:
Statement 3 is incorrect. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation functions under the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities, which is part of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, and not under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan, launched in 2015, aims to achieve universal accessibility for persons with Disabilities across three major domains:
India to notify SOPs
India
SDN
Sandhan Test Series Statement 2 can be solved through the question given below- Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (Accessible India Campaign)
Partial
aimsto:(a) ensure last mile connectivity in each and every village through pucca roads.(b) achieve accessibility of Government services electronically by improving online infrastructure.(c) achieve universal accessibility to persons with disabilities.(d) provide online access of higher education through educational tools and communication media.EXPLANATION Sugamya Bharat'to be carried out by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment would highlight accessibility issues of differently-abled persons such as difficulty to access public transport and buildings. It will strive for achieving universal accessibility for all
(PwDs). Select the answer using the code given below:(a) 1 and 2(b) 2 only(c) 1 and 3(d) 1 only

Year Asked: Prelims 2026
Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Re... - Question 87: Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct? 1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station. 2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry. 3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically. Select the answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 2 only

Correct Answer: (D)

Key Concepts & Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect as framed. Section 173 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 recognizes the concept of Zero FIR only in relation to cognizable offences. The inclusion of the phrase "cognizable/non-cognizable offences" in the statement makes it inaccurate, since matters relating to non-cognizable offences are dealt with separately under Section 174 of the BNSS.
Zero FIR has remained focus due to cases such as the Ajit Pawar matter and e-Zero FIR use in cyber fraud cases in Madhya Pradesh. UPSC asks such themes due to their relevance in cybercrime, interstate offences, and criminal justice reforms.
BNSS, 2023, Section 173.
BM
Sandhan Test Series Which of the following best describes the concept of Zero FIR in India? (a) An FIR that is registered without assigning an FIR number. (b) An FIR that is filed against an unidentified person. (c) An FIR that is automatically transferred to a court without a police investigation. (d) An FIR that can be filed at any police station, irrespective of jurisdiction. Explanation-A Zero FIR is an FIR that can be filed at any police station, regardless of where the offense took place. The police must transfer it to the appropriate jurisdictional police station for investigation. It can only be filed for cognizable offenses. Unlike regular FIRs, which are numbered based on the police station's records, a

Year Asked: Prelims 2026
(a) 3 Corps : Diamapur (b) 4 Corps : Tezpur (c) 14 Corps : Leh (d) ... - Question 99: (a) 3 Corps : Diamapur (b) 4 Corps : Tezpur (c) 14 Corps : Leh (d) 33 Corps : Srinagar
Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj
2.
Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.

Correct Answer: (B)

Key Concepts & Explanation:
3 Corps is headquartered in Diamapur, Nagaland, and is responsible for military operations in the northeastern region. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
4 Corps is headquartered in Tezpur, Assam. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
14 Corps, also known as the Fire and Fury Corps, is headquartered in Lehand is responsible for the Ladakh sector. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
33 Corps is not headquartered in Srinagar. Its headquarters are located at Sukna in West Bengal. The corps headquartered in Srinagar is the 15 Corps, also known as the Chinar Corps. Hence pair 4 is not correctly matched.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj
MoPR Hosts National Consultative Workshop on
M
CAA
https://rgsa.gov.in/index.htm
RM
Sandhan Test Series: With reference to Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj
The Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj
April 2022 to 31 March 2026, in alignment with the Fifteenth Finance Commission cycle. Therefore, the reference to implementation beginning from 1 April 2021 is factually incorrect.
Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj
Swaraj
Abhiyan; Focus on Further Strengthening PRIs in the Next
1.
The objective of the scheme is to develop the governance capabilities of the panchayati
2.
The objective of the revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the panchayati Raj
effectively contribute to the achievement of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) through participatory, inclusive, and decentralized local governance.
Phase of RGSA https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.as.px?PRID=2153665®=3&lang=2
Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
h Decent
rmatio
transfo

Year Asked: Prelims 2026
High-Yield Rapid Revision Additions
Detail the concepts and significance of II. 2025–2026 Legislative Alerts.

II. 2025–2026 Legislative Alerts

- 130th CA Bill: Proposes that the PM, Chief Ministers, and Ministers must cease to hold office if they are kept in custody for 30 or more days for offenses carrying a jail sentence of 5 years or more. - Pharma Standards (Schedule M): Revises manufacturing regulations, mandating CAPA (Corrective and Preventive Action) and integration with the ONDLS (Online National Drugs Licensing System) by December 2025. - 129th CA Bill: Lays down Phase 1 of simultaneous elections (LS + Assemblies).

QUICK REVISION BOX ​

  • 8th Pay Commission Chair: Justice (Retd.) Ranjana Prakash Desai.
  • VB-G RAM G Act: Replaced MGNREGA; raised job guarantee to 125 days under a 60:40 cost share.
  • SHANTI Act: Replaced Atomic Energy Act 1962; opened nuclear production to private/foreign investment.
  • Uttarakhand UCC: Marriage/live-in registration window extended to 1 year; STs excluded.
  • ANRF Head: The Prime Minister serves as ex-officio President of the foundation.
  • NAMASTE Scheme: Achieves 100% mechanization of septic cleaning; trains workers as Sanipreneurs.
  • Samiullah Case: SC held that land registration does not prove title ownership.
  • Dr. Sohail Malik Case: POSH complaints can be processed by a victim's ICC even if the harasser is an outsider.
  • DIGIPIN: A 10-character alphanumeric geolocation code identifying every 4m x 4m property in India.

Notes updated up to March 2026. Sources: Pay Commission Resolutions, BNS Codes, SC Judgements 2025.

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